本帖最后由 于 2010-09-03 09:35:00 编辑
Hi, frankbj, it is nice case. Figure 2 shows endoarteritis (v1), which is enough for diagnosis of acute T-cell-mediated rejection, Banff type 2A. Based on Banff system, Banff 2A or 2B or 3 is solely dependent on v1, v2, and v3. Interstitial mononuclear infiltration and tubulitis are not required. Often, interstitial monnuclear infiltration (i) and tubulitis (t) are present. Sometime, i or/and t are so mild (isolated arteritis), which makes our nephrologists uncomfortable to treat patient as 2A or 2B or 3 rejection.
I don't know how to explain the tubular vacuolization in figure 3, 4 and 8. It is not exactly isometric. Let me know your thought.
The hemorrhage reminds me of acute antibody mediated rejection. But the C4d is negative. Therefore, it is better interpreted as part of cellular rejection or procedure-induced bleeding.
Hi, frankbj, it is nice case. Figure 2 shows endoarteritis (v1), which is enough for diagnosis of acute T-cell-mediated rejection, Banff type 2A. Based on Banff system, Banff 2A or 2B or 3 is solely dependent on v1, v2, and v3. Interstitial mononuclear infiltration and tubulitis are not required. Often, interstitial monnuclear infiltration (i) and tubulitis (t) are present. Sometime, i or/and t are so mild (isolated arteritis), which makes our nephrologists uncomfortable to treat patient as 2A or 2B or 3 rejection.
I don't know how to explain the tubular vacuolization in figure 3, 4 and 8. It is not exactly isometric. Let me know your thought.
The hemorrhage reminds me of acute antibody mediated rejection. But the C4d is negative. Therefore, it is better interpreted as part of cellular rejection or procedure-induced bleeding.